Fire Support Team (FiST) MQF Skill Level 3 (SL3) Certification Practice Test

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• What area is assigned to an artillery unit for maneuvering their systems to increase survivability?
• Which of the following is a requirement when conducting air support operations?
• What is established by a commander to coordinate all fires within an area of operation?
• What is the term used for an area that both divides responsibility and has permissive and restrictive nature?
• What is the term for tracking and reporting the location and movement of friendly forces?
• What term is used for an attack or feint that draws the enemy's attention away from the principal operation?
• What is the primary mission of a TACP within ground maneuver units?
• Which vehicle employment option places the Fire Support Officer (FSO) in the fire support vehicle?
• During a CAS mission, what element is primarily focused on ensuring the safety of friendly forces?
• During joint operations, what is crucial to avoid fratricide?
• Which unit is co-located with ground maneuver units and provides terminal attack control of CAS aircraft?
• In military operations, what is the main function of a fire support coordination line?
• Which step is first in the CAS execution template?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?
• What is the role of the Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD) within the Army Air-Ground System?
• What term describes a munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire mission report?
• What does the Call for Fire zone represent in radar operations?
• In an engagement, how should clearance to fire normally be transmitted?
• Which radar zone is designated for critical asset protection in the event of jeopardizing the mission?
• The primary role of the Fire Support Coordinator is to?
• What does the acronym CAS stand for in military operations?
• What is defined as the characterization of detected objects to support engagement decisions?
• What refers to the targeting of enemy indirect fire systems and their supporting elements before they can engage friendly forces?
• Which aspect of tactical fire support focuses on assessing the effectiveness of fire missions after execution?
• What is the term for the support structure that aids in synchronizing and describing operational control?
• What is the term for the boundary established to prevent fire effects from crossing between friendly forces?
• Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?
• What support relationship is characterized by a unit supporting another supporting unit?
• What is the brevity term used in naval surface fire support (NSFS) for an ammunition remaining report?
• Which task entails slowing down the enemy's momentum while inflicting maximum damage without becoming decisively engaged?
• What brevity term acknowledges the sighting of a specified reference point?
• What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
• Which radar zone allows a commander to closely monitor enemy territory for weapon detection?
• What should be done before engaging a target with air support?
• What term best describes an operation aimed at sustaining fire on multiple targets simultaneously?
• What are the four Fire Support functions?
• What task is aimed at rendering an enemy force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• Which radar zone is monitored to detect weapons before any other acquisition?
• Which of the following is NOT included in a BDA report according to the SALTR format?
• Which of the following is not a characteristic of organic command relationships?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M982 Excalibur projectile?
• Which support relationship requires a force to support another specific force?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when both the lead and wing aircraft concentrate on the objective?
• True or False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is in level, forward flight?
• What can JTACs and FAC(A)s utilize to develop targeting data and provide terminal guidance operations?
• What command relationship involves being permanently assigned as an essential part of a military organization?
• What does the term "clear" refer to in fire support terminology?
• Which step involves determining the effectiveness of the strike in the CAS execution template?
• What is a line that delineates surface areas to facilitate coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units?
• What is a tactical plan for coordinating the fire of a unit's weapons?
• What command relationship gives the authority to organize and employ forces and assign tasks?
• What actions are taken to mislead adversary decision-makers, impacting their actions or inactions to benefit a friendly mission?
• What brevity term indicates that an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the M929 WP round?
• Final protective fires are generally within what range of meters from friendly positions?
• What term describes unintentional injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets?
• What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force's combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?
• What term is used by a JTAC during a Type 1 control for weapons release clearance?
• What does the letter "F" in the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?
• What is line 8 of the JFO target brief used to identify?
• What is the tactical mission task that renders enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with an operation?
• What phrase must be stated to maintain positive control during an engagement with the SOF Gunship?
• What does DACAS stand for in the context of fire support?
• How many phases consist in the joint targeting cycle?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a new target report?
• Which NSFS brevity term summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
• The concept of operations in fire support refers to?
• What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?
• Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
• True or False: Aircrew and commanders refer to the standing posture column of the REDs to determine when DANGER CLOSE procedures apply, regardless of friendly force posture.
• What type of zone is designed to restrict radar acquisition around friendly systems?
• What brevity term indicates sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
• What brevity term would you use to begin using briefed communication procedures to counter communications jamming?
• What is the circular error for Category I TLE, measured in feet and meters?
• Which entity handles immediate air support requests and coordinates CAS sorties?
• Which command relationship allows the provision of support for a specific mission?
• Which term describes the immediate indirect and joint fires provided to neutralize enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired?
• What brevity term signifies acquisition of laser designation or indicates that the platform is laser spot tracker capable?
• Who is the senior field artillery commander who advises maneuver commanders on fire support integration?
• What does the 'T' in TEFACHR stand for in a situation update?
• In which phase of a CAS mission is the situation assessed for risks to friendly forces before engaging the target?
• What is the purpose of Army operations that protect aviation assets near the forward line of own troops?
• A high payoff target generally has what implication for operational success?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in descending forward flight?
• What is the main function of the Fires and Effects Coordination Center (FECC)?
• What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnances?
• What brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?
• What type of identification is derived from the analysis of target characteristics?
• What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
• What is the role of the JFO in the planning process for close air support?
• Which vehicle employment option maximizes the assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but may degrade the supported unit?
• What process ensures that results of military actions are sufficient to meet command objectives?
• What is the senior fire support organization assisting the MAGTF commander?
• What is the final step in the CAS execution template?
• Which element provides advice to ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air operations?
• What task/effect is achieved by integrating direct and indirect fires to disrupt an enemy's formation?
• What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission of an NSFS call for fire?
• In terms of fire support management, what action is included under Attack Guidance?
• What is the primary goal of an indirect firing unit?
• What command relationship implies that units are placed in an organization for a relatively permanent duration?
• What type of maneuver control measure is used for the coordination of military operations?
• What term is used for actions designed to protect Army aviation assets from enemy air threats?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that indicates enemy activity below the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• Which component is a primary part of the targeting process in military operations?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What is the effect of temporarily degrading the performance of a force below the necessary level to complete a mission?
• Do Army Attack Aviation engagements require terminal attack control?
• What command relationship involves limited authority over forces necessary to accomplish assigned missions?
• What serves as the link between the ASOC and tactical air control parties for aircraft coordination?
• When will the joint terminal attack controller typically state the method of attack?
• What is the process that involves detection, identification, and location of a target for effective employment of capabilities?
• If full BDA is not possible, what should be passed at a minimum?
• What is one of the primary responsibilities of a JTAC during a CAS mission?
• What is the purpose of suppression in a tactical mission context?
• What is the type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?
• What is the role of permissive fire support coordination measures in military operations?
• True or False: Army Attack Aviation and SOF gunships utilize the same call for fire format.
• In military operations, what is essential for ensuring coordination between land and maritime forces?
• Which Marine Corps entity is known as the senior agency in the command and control system?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is possible?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a part of combat identification?
• What does it mean to task organize a force for a unique mission?
• What is the purpose of a kill box in military operations?
• What brevity term means to mark a target by using an infrared (IR) pointer?
• Which element is typically located with the joint fires element at the JSOTF?
• What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft's responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is primarily responsible for scanning the objective?
• In what scenario must a JFO communicate as "not a JTAC"?
• What identifies objects protected from military operations under international law?
• What additional information must be provided if 'danger close' is announced during a call for fire?
• Which of these represents a key distinction of tactical control?
• Which of these fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• True or False: Ground forces' location must be identified by aircrews after receiving an attack aviation call for fire.
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is stationary or has little forward motion?
• What term indicates that a joint terminal attack controller grants weapons release clearance to an aircraft to attack a target?
• What is the circular error for Category II TLE, measured in feet and meters?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an unfired target report?
• What is primarily aimed to create disorganization in enemy operations and decision-making?
• Which action is crucial during the call for fire in a CAS operation?
• What are the two core competencies provided to Army operations by Field Artillery?
• What defines an area where fires are entirely prohibited?
• What is the outcome intended by conducting a diversion in military operations?
• Who is responsible for joint fires planning and execution?
• What brevity term means to oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
• What information does the 'L' in SALTR stand for in a BDA report for a CAS engagement?
• What area does a commander designate for searching and attacking hostile firing systems?
• What type of operation orients on the force or facility being protected?
• What does a restrictive fire area require before fires can be conducted?
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
• What brevity term signifies a FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
• What is the purpose of the targeting process in a military context?
• Which of the following is an example of restrictions in fire support planning?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is imminent?
• Which type of defensive operation focuses on denying enemy forces access to terrain?
• What is characterized by valid military targets with engagement restrictions placed by the JFC?
• True or False: For successful JFO employment, it is imperative that the JTAC and JFO participate in the planning process.
• What term describes the measurement of a feature or location on Earth to determine absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• What is the appropriate maneuver area assigned by the maritime commander to fire support ships?
• True or False: The phrase 'danger close' requires additional information to be passed to attacking aircraft.
• In the CAS execution template, what does BDA stand for?
• What does the 'H' in TEFACHR stand for?
• What is the term for the exact location at sea from which a fire support ship delivers fires?
• What does the letter "P" in the memory aid FA-PARCA represent?
• What additional line of the CAS 9-line is a mandatory readback when working with NATO forces?
• What type of support relationship is assigned to reinforce a similar-type unit?
• What is characterized as a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is remote?
• What tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
• What type of line allows firing without additional coordination with the establishing HQ?
• What methods can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and surface fires?
• Which of these fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• True or False: JTACs/FAC(A)s should respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just "readback correct" or "good readback".
• Which phase involves identifying and neutralizing enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired to achieve combat objectives?
• What brevity term signifies the sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by massing what type of fire on targets?
• What facilitates the efficient use of airspace for operations while safeguarding friendly forces?
• What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?
• True or False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures ensure the safety of friendly forces.
• What net is used for aircraft control during joint operations?
• What is the purpose of a censor zone in relation to friendly weapon systems?
• Which of the following is NOT a fire support coordination measure?
• Which key concept in targeting involves the understanding of friendly and enemy capabilities?
• What is the step that follows “CAS Aircraft Check-In” in the CAS execution template?
• What is a measure used to assess changes in system behavior and operational environment tied to the attainment of an objective?
• What is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment?
• What brevity term means to discontinue stated activity?
• What is the role of the specialized Army element that serves as the senior Army operational commander's liaison with the air component?
• What does the term "first round fire for effect" emphasize?
• Which branch of the military is the Battlefield Coordination Line specific to?
• What does 'C' represent in the TEFACHR situation update?
• What term refers to areas where any weapon system may fire without additional coordination?
• What measures do commanders use to define lines of responsibility in support of friendly forces?
• What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller to authorize the aircraft to proceed with the attack profile, but does not grant weapons release?
• What step in the CAS execution template involves providing details on the attack configuration?
• Which operation is designed primarily to create conditions favorable for further operations?
• Which type of support involves responding directly to requests from the supported force?
• Which munitions provide terminal accuracy at submunitions dispense level less than lethal radius?
• What measure allows for the integration of air-to-surface lethal attacks?
• What must you advise the aircrew when executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual?
• What kind of area imposes specific restrictions on fire deliveries without coordination?
• The role of the Field Artillery is to suppress, neutralize, or destroy the enemy using which methods?
• When is a gun-target line considered hot?
• Which of the following is NOT a Fire Support function?
• What is the primary purpose of a gun-target line?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft's responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is responsible for sanitizing the route directly in front of the friendly force?
• Which entity within the Theater Air Control System allocates resources and tasks forces?
• What term refers to an operation aimed at defeating an enemy attack while economizing forces?
• Which support relationship provides assistance to the supported force as a whole?
• What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• Which term describes the area in which friendly forces should not be engaged due to potential risk?
• What is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a method for achieving responsive fires?
• Which method of attack requires that the target is tallied/captured by the aircrew?